A Reader Writes:
Hi there,
In the April newsletter, The Plastic Bible, Jacob has asked a question. I suppose it is actually rhetorical, and he doesn’t really want an answer, but I’m going to give him one anyway. The question is: “Where does the King James justify using the word “Easter”?”
Although the Greek plainly says pascha, which we would normally translate Passover, the context indicates that that is not what is meant here. Acts 12:3 says, “…Then were the days of unleavened bread.” Passover is the 14th of Nisan. That’s a single day and night. Followed by 7 days of unleavened bread. If it was during the days of unleavened bread, clearly Passover had been and gone. Herod was by no means concerned about doing away with anyone on the Passover. Jesus was sacrificed at Passover. Furthermore he was a pagan. Obviously he didn’t want to mess up his own religious feast, the one which comes from Eostre, Ashtoreth, etc. Whether the AV translators substituted Passover for Easter with complete understanding, or as it were accidentally, doesn’t really matter. The hand of God was on them and they got it right. Easter, Herod’s pagan festival, is the one which should be named here. Continue reading