Moriel received the following question:

I was watching a video podcast by Jacob titled the Devils Algebra. I really enjoyed the podcast however I have one question that has arisen from this podcast. I have tried to search the internet and to search the scriptures as much as possible to come to a conclusion. However I am struggling with this one. Can you explain to me please why Jesus did not go down into hell after he died on the cross. I have read so many differing versions as to what actually happened. This question came to me after Jacob , and rightly so, warned people from the teachings of people like Joyce Meyer and the like. As she says that Jesus went down into Hell in our place so we don’t have to. This doesn’t sit right for me.

Moriel answers:

Lets look at 1 Peter3:18-22, which is a difficult passage and specifically Jesus going to “hell”. One of the first things that we do at Moriel with difficult passages is we look at the original languages and see what it says and if it can bring some clarity to the translation.  Also, we look to other supporting verses in the Bible to see if there is help there. So, according to Peter, sometime between His death and His resurrection Jesus made a special proclamation or preached to “the spirits in prison.” This raises some questions: 

Does the original language say hell? Who were these “spirits” that He visited? What did He proclaim to them? Lets see if you can figure this out, I will give you some clues and links. When you are done studying this, I believe you will own this passage and will be able to explain it to others.

Does the original language say hell?   http://interlinearbible.org/1_peter/3.htm

Now what word is used here in 1Peter 3:19? Does it say hell, hades, or prison?  Look these words up. http://concordances.org/greek/86.htm http://concordances.org/greek/1067.htm

Next is there another place in the Scriptures that expands on this passage or tells us what Jesus did or went? Go to Acts 2:31.  Now that you looked up the words above what word is used? Are they the same? Are they interchangeable?  Do they all mean the same them?

Now that you know which of these words is used and mean, go read Revelation 20:11-15 in the New American Standard Bible or the New International Version. What did you find out about hades? Was it different than hell the final resting place of the wicked? Is it a temporary place?

Next ask yourself, why did Peter call people “souls” and not “spirits” in 1 Peter 3:20. Again go look at the original language.

http://concordances.org/greek/4151.htm http://concordances.org/greek/5590.htm

So, does the Bible make a difference between “spirits” and “souls”? When you read the New Testament what does it refer to when it says “spirits”?

What does did Peter say was preached to them and what is that word “preached” and how is it used?

Lets look at the word first    http://concordances.org/greek/2784.htm

Does it say he preached the gospel?  If so, does that mean these spirits have another chance which would be the only reason to preach the gospel? If yes, where does the Bible teach that? See http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Hebrews+9:27&version=NASB

Also, ask yourself why did he just go preach to those from Noah’s day? Does that make sense? Do you think that there were more of whoever in “hades” then just these since Noah’s day? Also, if these were “spirits” can they be saved or redeemed? See Heb. 2:16. Also, if these where “spirits” what could He be “preaching or proclaiming” to them?  see Col. 2:15; 1 Peter 3:22 (notice the context here in 3:22).

What are your conclusions?